Hume presumed that all moral judgments of right or wrong are subjective because

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Hume presumed that all moral judgments of right or wrong are subjective because according to him they seem to be based on one’s personal feelings or a community’s social mores at the time of the decision in question. If you doubt the credibility of this notion, consider how in this country, prevailing attitudes about premarital sex, abortion and divorce have changed over the course of the past 50 years alone or consider this example: if a group of people commandeer an airplane and fly it into one of the World Trade Towers, killing thousands of people, including themselves, we might consider this action evil and label the perpetrators as terrorists for harming nonmilitary combatants. Members of Al-Qaeda and the Taliban, on the other hand, might consider the actions of the martyrs as good and label them as heroes for doing the work of “God.”
What did Hume mean when he said, “You can’t go from an “is” to an “ought”? (Requires a specific answer that is in the module and thus requires a citation.)
Is there one universal standard that applies to all people at all times and in all places? How do you know and how do you rove it?
How do you determine who is right when disagreements occur about what is “good” and “bad”?
According to Hume, should intent matter when determining the morality of a particular action and do agree? (Requires a specific answer that is in the module and thus requires a citation.)

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